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November 05, 2009

Comments

I'm sorry, but people over think this. It's called "sensitivity to initial conditions" -- the same quality that occurs in chaos theory. In order to have a time reversal, you need precise information about the current state of the system and a way to reproduce that exact state. Miss the 8th or 10th significant figure and it won't reverse. It's just not possible to have enough information about the system in order to be able to reverse it.

Not according to Newton's laws - they should be in principle allow one to calculate to the nth decimal place. Especially when we use infinite precision mathematics.

Your argument bears weight if all we were doing was an approximation, but Newton's laws are not an approximation.

When was the last time you used Newton's laws without approximation? Frictionless pulleys, neglect air resistance, simplify the many body problem, it goes on and on ad infinitum. And let us not forget the infamous spherical horse. Sure, Newton's laws by themselves do not include any approximations, but once you start applying them to a real problem, watch out. The problem quickly becomes unsolvable unless you are able to approximate somewhere.

Sorry for the digression. My real point is that I don't understand why one has to resort to quantum mechanics to explain the arrow of time. Your instant coffee strikes me as a macroscopic problem where quantum theory doesn't really apply. I remember a very simple statistical physics explanation of diffusion which explains it all quite well. Perhaps I just need a better example before I look at this in quantum terms.

Paul - the coffee stirring is an example of a unidirectional arrow in macroscopic physics. There are others. (I just like that example because people "get it" relatively easily.

The real issue is that Newton's equations, which do explicitly contain a time expression unlike the Wheeler De-Witt equation referenced above, are invariant under a time reflection transformation. (To use the proper mathematical language.) But while the equations are invariant, the physics observed is not. That's the issue. Generally we argue that we can discard the solutions to the equation which are forced upon by time invariance by a hand-waving argument that discards them as being non-physical solutions.

But if you push people about why they do that, they have to admit that's it related to the "art" of physics rather than the a fundamental understanding of why the time symmetric equations should be solved in asymmetric ways.

The arrow of time paradox is pretty well understood by the majority of reputable physicists. There's more to it than the simplistic examples I'm using as way of illustrating it to a non-technical audience.

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